by theycantdothat » Thu Nov 16, 2017 12:54 pm
Suppose no leasehold interest is involved. If you leave a chattel on someone's else's land what can they do? They can avoid an action for conversion or trespass to goods by following the procedure set out in the 1977 Act. If the landowner gives a notice to the chattel owner saying, and only saying, that the chattel may be removed without notice and then removes and disposes of the chattel the Act has not been followed. Further, even where the procedure has been followed, there is nothing in the Act which allows the landowner to appropriate the chattel absolutely. All he has the right to do is sell the chattel and he must account to the chattel owner with the proceeds less the costs of disposal.
In the case where a leaseholder, without authority, leaves a chattel on the common parts or some other area not included in any lease then, subject only to the terms of the chattel owner's lease, the position is no different. Except as permitted by the Tribunals, Courts and Enforcement Act 2007 in relation to commercial lettings, there is nothing in the relationship of landlord and tenant which allows a landlord, without the sanction of the court following the issue of proceedings, to appropriate a tenant's goods for any reason. The OP says there is nothing relevant in the lease. If that is the case the landlord/agent has acted unlawfully. The OP may of course have missed something which the agent is relying on even if he has no good reason to rely on it. The OP should not therefore charge in with accusations and threats. There is though no need to pussyfoot around. The OP should demand an urgent reply to the following questions:
·Under what authority was the requirement to register made?
·Under what authority was the bike removed?
·Under what authority was the bike sold and the proceeds distributed to charity?
·Assuming authority for all the above, under what authority does it extend to a non-leaseholder?