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How could the council's claim possibly stand up in court?

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Re: How could the council's claim possibly stand up in court

Postby atticus » Mon Apr 17, 2017 9:50 pm

Why should there be any difference? In each case a communication has been made. Do you see a distinction?
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Re: How could the council's claim possibly stand up in court

Postby dls » Tue Apr 18, 2017 5:54 pm

Let me put the issue another way then: an individual sends a computer file containing data to a council. The council then communicates some of the the data contained in that computer file to a third party without the express written consent of the party who sent the computer file, containing the data, in the first place.

What law, if any, has been broken?


It depends upon several things. There is nothing in what you say to suggest that any law has been broken. You are communicating with a large public authority. Freedom of information law makes the fact and content of the communication public. It might just become unlawful if the information has some particular character which makes it such, but you have not suggested any.
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