Where is it written that "a statute is given the force of law when contented to by the governed." I have a Black's 8th Ed. and I've looked at the section on State / Statutory INstruments, etc. but cannot find this specific definition.
If the concept that statutes requiring consent is "nonsense" then everyone here must accept that we live in a totalitarian dictatorship.
Common law (remember that we live in a common law jurisdiction) covers every possibility, we can all get along just fine only operating under common law.
Cause no loss or harm to another individual. Do not breach the peace, use no mischief in your contracts.
There is not a single situation where common law does not protect us.
How can anyone claim to have the right to tell us if we should wear a seatbelt or not? How can anyone tell me what I can put in my body or not? Answer no one can. Statutes are not laws.
They are called "acts", if they were laws then they would be called "laws", would they not?
If you owned your house, you would receive letters addressed to house owner, not the legal fiction "home owner" or "house HOLDER".
If you owned your car, you would not be known as the "registered keeper", you would be called the "owner", plain and simple.
ACTS are not LAWS. If they were the two words would be one and the same.
So again, I ask you where it says that a statute is a law.