I can confirm that the company has no obligation to pass on a share to a new owner, but looking back at the history of the company, all the lessees including the original owner of my apartment had shares but each time someone has sold on, the director has refused to issue new ones. The result is that he and a few others have have effectively gained control of the company and are keeping the rest of us out.
Going back to the issue of the invoice, I am not suggesting that all the costs themselves are invalid. The point I am making is that because the invoice total is invalid, the overall invoice is invalid too. The company would need to represent the invoice with the correct total before the lessees would have any legal obligation to pay. I wonder if this is an argument?